CCNA3 Final Exam Form B - Online Assessment

1. Question

What is the function of STP in a scalable network?

It decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures.
It protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity.
It disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.
It combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased bandwidth.

2. Question

Which routing protocol is able to scale for large networks and utilizes non-backbone areas for expansion?

EIGRP
BGP
OSPF
RIPv2

3. Question

In the Cisco hierarchical design model, which layer is more likely to have a fixed configuration switch than the other layers?

distribution
transport
internet
access
core

4. Question

A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?

show ip protocols
show ip interface
show cdp neighbors
show port-security
show mac-address-table

5. Question

A switched network has converged completely. All switches currently have a VTP revision number of 5. A new switch that has been configured as a VTP server is added to the network. The new switch has a VTP revision number of 4. What will occur within the network?

The network will no longer share VLAN database updates.
The newly added switch will automatically switch to VTP client mode.
The VTP databases will remain unchanged in all switches with the exception of the newly added switch.
All switches in the network will update their VTP database to reflect the VTP database of the new switch.

6. Question

What are three characteristics of VTP? (Choose three.)

In the default VTP mode, VLANs can be created, modified, and deleted on the switch.
Switches in VTP server mode store VLANs in the vlan.dat database.
A switch in transparent mode with a higher configuration revision number than the existing VTP server updates all VLAN information throughout the VTP domain.
To reset a configuration revision number, the switch configuration must be saved and the switch reloaded.
VTP updates are exchanged across trunk links only.
Switches in different VTP domains can exchange updates if their revision numbers are the same.

7. Question

A network administrator is planning to add a new switch to the network. What should the network administrator do to ensure the new switch exchanges VTP information with the other switches in the VTP domain?

Configure the correct VTP domain name and password on the new switch.
Associate all ports of the new switch to a VLAN that is not VLAN 1.
Configure the VLANs on the new switch.
Configure all ports on the new switch to access mode.

8. Question

A network administrator is adding a new VLAN for testing. The company uses VTP and the VLAN is not directly attached to either of the switches configured as VTP servers. What is the best method to add this VLAN to the network?

Change the switch that has connected hosts in the new VLAN to be in VTP server mode.
Configure a port on the VTP servers for the same VLAN as the new VLAN.
Manually add the VLAN to the VLAN database of the VTP servers.
Configure interfaces on the switch that has connected hosts in the new VLAN and reboot the switch.

9. Question

Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

dynamic desirable - dynamic desirable
dynamic auto - dynamic auto
dynamic desirable - dynamic auto
dynamic desirable - trunk
access - trunk
access - dynamic auto

10. Question

Refer to the exhibit. The configuration shows the commands entered by a network administrator for inter-VLAN routing. However, host PCA cannot communicate with PCB. Which part of the inter-VLAN configuration causes the problem?

CCNA3 v6.0 Final Exam B 006

trunking
port mode on the two switch FastEthernet ports
VLAN configuration
router port configuration

11. Question

Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW-A is to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. What two pieces of information are indicated from the exhibited output? (Choose two.)

CCNA3 v6.0 Final Exam B 016

The other switches in the domain can be running either VTP version 1 or 2.
There is a risk that the switch may cause incorrect VLAN information to be sent through the domain.
VTP will block frame forwarding on at least one redundant trunk port that is configured on this switch.
VLAN configuration changes made on this switch will be sent to other devices in the VTP domain.
This switch will update its VLAN configuration when VLAN changes are made on a VTP server in the same domain.

12. Question

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?

CCNA3 v6.0 Final Exam B 001

Include a router in the topology.
Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.
Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
Configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.
Add the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of SW2.

13. Question

What are two drawbacks to turning spanning tree off and having multiple paths through the Layer 2 switch network? (Choose two.)

The switch acts like a hub.
Port security becomes unstable.
The MAC address table becomes unstable.
Broadcast frames are transmitted indefinitely.
Port security shuts down all of the ports that have attached devices.

14. Question

Which port role is assigned to the switch port that has the lowest cost to reach the root bridge?

root port
non-designated port
designated port
disabled port

15. Question

Refer to the exhibit. What is the role of the SW3 switch?

CCNA3 v6.0 Final Exam B 004

designated switch
edge switch
root bridge
enabled bridge
local bridge

16. Question

Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)

CCNA3 v6.0 Final Exam B 005

SW1 will become the root bridge.
SW2 will become the root bridge.
SW2 will get a port blocked.
SW4 will get a port blocked.
SW3 will become the root bridge.
SW4 will become the root bridge.

17. Question

Which spanning tree standard was developed by Cisco to provide separate instances of 802.1w per VLAN?

RSTP
802.1D
MSTP
Rapid PVST+

18. Question

Which industry-wide specification was developed to decrease the time that is needed to move to the forwarding state by switch ports that are operating in a redundantly switched topology?

VLSM
PVST
802.1Q
RSTP
VTP

19. Question

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the bridge ID and the status of this switch in the STP election. Which statement is correct based on the command output?

CCNA3 v6.0 Final Exam B 010

The bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a predefined value to become the root bridge.
The bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a predefined value to become the backup root bridge.
The STP instance on Switch_2 is failing due to no ports being blocked and all switches believing they are the root.
The STP instance on Switch_2 is using the default STP priority and the election is based on Switch_2 MAC address.

20. Question

An STP instance has failed and frames are flooding the network. What action should be taken by the network administrator?

A response from the network administrator is not required because the TTL field will eventually stop the frames from flooding the network.
Spanning tree should be disabled for that STP instance until the problem is located.
Broadcast traffic should be investigated and eliminated from the network.
Redundant links should be physically removed until the STP instance is repaired.

21. Question

Refer to the exhibit. Which switching technology would allow data to be transmitted over each access layer switch link and prevent the port from being blocked by spanning tree due to the redundant link?

CCNA3 v6.0 Final Exam B 009

EtherChannel
HSRP
PortFast
trunking

22. Question

What are two advantages of EtherChannel? (Choose two.)

Configuring the EtherChannel interface provides consistency in the configuration of the physical links.
Load balancing occurs between links configured as different EtherChannels.
EtherChannel uses upgraded physical links to provide increased bandwidth.
Spanning Tree Protocol views the physical links in an EtherChannel as one logical connection.
Spanning Tree Protocol ensures redundancy by transitioning failed interfaces in an EtherChannel to a forwarding state.

23. Question

When EtherChannel is implemented, multiple physical interfaces are bundled into which type of logical connection?

interface range
loopback
VLAN interface
port channel

24. Question

When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure LACP on a port only if the port receives LACP packets from another device?

active
auto
desirable
passive

25. Question

Which two channel group modes would place an interface in a negotiating state using PAgP? (Choose two.)

on
desirable
active
auto
passive

26. Question

A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement is a feature that is associated with GLBP?

GLBP allows load balancing between routers.
It is nonproprietary.
It uses a virtual router master.
It works together with VRRP.

27. Question

A new chief information officer (CIO) has requested implementation of a link-state dynamic routing protocol. Which two routing protocols fulfill this requirement? (Choose two.)

RIPv2
BGP
OSPF
IS-IS
EIGRP

28. Question

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is utilizing RIPv1 in the exhibited network topology. What would the router R2 do with a packet that is originating from the 192.168.4.0/24 network and destined for network 172.16.1.0/24?

CCNA3 v6.0 Final Exam B 003

The router will forward the packet to R1.
The router will forward the packet to R3.
The router will load balance and forward packets to both R1 and R3.
The router will drop the packet.

29. Question

What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

They use hop count as their only metric.
They only send out updates when a new network is added.
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
They flood the entire network with routing updates.

30. Question

Which statement defines the speed of convergence of routing protocols?

The time it takes a router to form a neighbor adjacency.
The time it takes a router to learn about directly connected links..
The time it takes a router to calculate the cost of a link.
The time it takes a router within a network to forward routing information.

31. Question

What is associated with link-state routing protocols?

low processor overhead
poison reverse
routing loops
split horizon
Shortest Path First calculations

32. Question

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OFPF in the topology as shown. What is the preferred path to get from the LAN network that is connected to R1 to the LAN network that is connected to R7?

CCNA3 v6.0 Final Exam B 002

R1-R3-R4-R5-R6-R7
R1-R3-R2-R6-R7
R1-R2-R6-R7
R1-R4-R5-R6-R7

33. Question

What does the SPF algorithm consider to be the best path to a network?

The path with the least number of hops.
The path with the smallest delays.
The path that includes the fastest cumulative bandwidth links.
The path that includes the fastest single bandwidth link.

34. Question

Which two pieces of information are contained within a link-state packet (LSP)? (Choose two.)

hop count
bandwidth
link type
delay
load

35. Question

What is a difference between the routing protocols EIGRP and OSPF?

EIGRP uses hop count as the metric and OSPF uses cost as the metric.
EIGRP is an implementation of EGP whereas OSPF is an implementation of IGP.
EIGRP supports routing different network layer protocols whereas OSPF supports routing only IP-based protocols.
EIGRP only supports equal-cost load balancing whereas OSPF supports both equal-cost and unequal-cost load balancing.

36. Question

What protocol is used by EIGRP for the delivery and receipt of EIGRP packets?

RTP
TCP
UDP
ICMP

37. Question

Which statement describes the autonomous system number used in EIGRP configuration on a Cisco router?

It carries the geographical information of the organization.
It functions as a process ID in the operation of the router.
It is a globally unique autonomous system number that is assigned by IANA.
It identifies the ISP that provides the connection to network of the organization.

38. Question

How is bandwidth to a destination network calculated by EIGRP?

the lowest configured bandwidth of any interface along the route
the sum of the configured bandwidths of all interfaces along the path
the highest configured bandwidth of any interface along the path
the bandwidth of the ingress interface of the last hop router

39. Question

An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table contains two feasible successors to the same network. What action will the router take?

The DUAL algorithm is recomputed to find an alternate route.
The router uses the default route.
The best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing table.
The router will query neighbors for an alternate route.

40. Question

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 eigrp neighbors command. Which conclusion can be drawn based on the output?

CCNA3 v6.0 Final Exam B 007

The link-local addresses of neighbor routers interfaces are configured manually.
R1 has two neighbors. They connect to R1 through their S0/0/0 and S0/0/1 interfaces.
The neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 is the first EIGRP neighbor that is learned by R1.
If R1 does not receive a hello packet from the neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 in 2 seconds, it will declare the neighbor router is down.

41. Question

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has attempted to implement a default route from R1 to the ISP and propagate the default route to EIGRP neighbors. Remote connectivity from the EIGRP neighbor routers to the ISP connected to R1 is failing. Based on the output from the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the problem?

CCNA3 v6.0 Final Exam B 014

The command default-information originate has not been issued on R1.
There are no EIGRP neighbor relationships on R1.
The ip route command must specify a next-hop IP address instead of an exit interface when creating a default route.
The command redistribute static has not been issued on R1.
The network statement for the ISP connection has not been issued.

42. Question

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement accurately reflects the configuration of routing on the HQ router?

CCNA3 v6.0 Final Exam B 013

A static default route was configured on this router.
A static default route was learned via EIGRP routing updates.
The static default route should be redistributed using the default-information originate command.
The IP address assigned to the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface is 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0.

43. Question

Which command would limit the amount of bandwidth that is used by EIGRP for protocol control traffic to approximately 128 Kb/s on a 1.544 Mb/s link?

ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 8
maximum-paths 8
variance 8
traffic-share balanced

44. Question

Which criterion is preferred by the router to choose a router ID?

the IP address of the highest configured loopback interface on the router
the IP address of the highest active interface on the router
the router-id rid command
the IP address of the highest active OSPF-enabled interface

45. Question

What is the effect of entering the network 192.168.10.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 command in router configuration mode?

The interface with the IPv4 address 192.168.10.1 will be a passive interface.
OSPF advertisements will include the network on the interface with the IPv4 address 192.168.10.1.
This command will have no effect because it uses a quad zero wildcard mask.
OSPF advertisements will include the specific IPv4 address 192.168.10.1.

46. Question

Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.
The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command.
The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.
The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.
The link interface subnet masks must match.
The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.

47. Question

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors. Which address would R1 use as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet?

CCNA3 v6.0 Final Exam B 011

FF02::5
2001:DB8:ACAD:1::2
2001:DB8:C5C0:1::2
FE80::21E:BEFF:FEF4:5538

48. Question

When does an OSPF router become an ABR?

when the router has interfaces in different areas
when the router is configured as an ABR by the network administrator
when the router has the highest router ID
when the router has an OSPF priority of 0

49. Question

Which type of OSPF router connects an OSPF area to non-OSPF routing domains?

ABR
ASBR
DR
backbone router

50. Question

Which function is performed by an OSPF ABR?

flooding type 2 LSAs within an area
originating type 5 LSAs into an area
injecting type 3 LSAs into an area
advertising the router ID of any designated routers within an area

51. Question

What type of OSPF IPv4 route is indicated by a route table entry descriptor of O E1?

a summary route that is advertised by an ABR
an intra-area route that is advertised by the DR
an external route that is advertised by an ASBR
a directly connected route that is associated with an Ethernet interface

52. Question

In which mode is the area area-id range address mask command issued when multiarea OSPF summarization is being configured?

global configuration mode
router configuration mode
interface configuration mode of area 0 interfaces
interface configuration mode of all participating interfaces

53. Question

Refer to the exhibit. What are three resulting DR and DBR elections for the given topology? (Choose three.)

CCNA3 v6.0 Final Exam B 012

R4 is BDR for segment B.
R4 is DR for segment B.
R3 is DR for segment A.
R2 is DR for segment A.
R3 is BDR for segment B.
R5 is DR for segment B.

54. Question

After implementing an IPv6 network, the administrator notices that the OSPFv3 process is not starting on the routers. What could be the problem?

The routers are configured with the default priority.
Authentication was not implemented between the routers.
No router IDs are configured on the routers.
The routers were not configured with the network command.

55. Question

Refer to the exhibit. How did this router learn of the highlighted route in the routing table?

CCNA3 v6.0 Final Exam B 008

by entering the router configuration mode command default-information originate
by entering the global configuration mode command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 interface-type interface-number
by entering the global configuration mode command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 ip-address
by receiving an update from another OSPF router that is running another routing protocol
by receiving an update from another OSPF router that has the default-information originate command configured

56. Question

Which command can be used to view OSPF adjacencies with neighboring routers along with the transition state?

show ip protocols
show ip ospf neighbor
show ip ospf interface
show running-config

57. Question

Match the description to the EIGRP packet type. (Not all options are used.)

Sort elements

hello packets
query packets
reply packets
update packets
acknowledgment packets
database description packets

used for neighbor discovery and to maintain neighbor adjacencies
used to propagate routing information to EIGRP neighbors
sent in response to an EIGRP query
used to propagate routing information to EIGRP neighbors
used to acknowledge the receipt of an EIGRP message that send using reliable delivery

58. Question

Refer to the exhibit. Match the description to the corresponding value used by the DUAL FSM. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA3 v6.0 Final Exam B 015

Sort elements

192.168.11.64
660110
tid 0
192.168.3.1

destination network
feasible distance to 192.168.11.64
new successor to network 192.168.1.0

59. Question

Match the description to the term. (Not all options are used.)

Sort elements

adjacency database
Shortest Path First
single-area OSPF
DUAL
link-state database
multiarea OSPF

This is where the details of the neighboring routers can be found
This is the algorithm used by OSPF.
All the routers aere in the backbone area.
This is where you can find the topology table.

60. Question

Match the order of precedence to the process logic that an OSPFv3 network router goes through in choosing a router ID. (Not all options are used.)

Sort elements

The router displays a console message to configure the router ID manually.
The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of an active interface.
The router chooses the highest IPv6 address that is configured on the router.
The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of a loopback interface.
The router uses the explicitly configured router ID if any.

priority 4
priority 3
priority 2
priority 1

Average score
Your score

November 2018
M	T	W	T	F	S	S
« Jun
			1	2	3	4
5	6	7	8	9	10	11
12	13	14	15	16	17	18
19	20	21	22	23	24	25
26	27	28	29	30