CCNA1 v7 – ITN v7 – Final Exam Answers

CCNA1 v7 – ITNv7 – Final Exam Answers 2020 correct 100%

  1. A new network administrator has been asked to enter a banner message on a Cisco device. What is the fastest way a network administrator could test whether the banner is properly configured?

    • Enter CTRL-Z at the privileged mode prompt.
    • Power cycle the device.
    • Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter.
    • Exit global configuration mode.
    • Reboot the device.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      While at the privileged mode prompt such as Router#, type exit ,press Enter , and the banner message appears. Power cycling a network device that has had the banner motd command issued will also display the banner message, but this is not a quick way to test the configuration.

  2. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?

    • The switch requires a username/password combination for remote access.
    • The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
    • Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
    • The switch requires remote connections via a proprietary client software.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      The transport input ssh command when entered on the switch vty (virtual terminal lines) will encrypt all inbound controlled telnet connections.

  3. What is the subnet ID associated with the IPv6 address 2001:DA48:FC5:A4:3D1B::1/64?

    • 2001:DA48::/64​
    • 2001::/64
    • 2001:DA48:FC5:A4::/64​
    • 2001:DA48:FC5::A4:/64​
      Explanation:

      The /64 represents the network and subnet IPv6 fields. The fourth field of hexadecimal digits is referred to as the subnet ID. The subnet ID for this address is 2001:DA48:FC5:A4::0/64.​​
  4. A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?

    • It must send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation message to determine what default gateway it should use.
    • It must send a DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST message to request the address of the DNS server.
    • It must send a DHCPv6 REQUEST message to the DHCPv6 server to request permission to use this address.
    • It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network.
      Explanation:

      Stateless DHCPv6 or stateful DHCPv6 uses a DHCP server, but Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) does not. A SLAAC client can automatically generate an address that is based on information from local routers via Router Advertisement (RA) messages. Once an address has been assigned to an interface via SLAAC, the client must ensure via Duplicate Address Detection (DAD) that the address is not already in use. It does this by sending out an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message and listening for a response. If a response is received, then it means that another device is already using this address.

  5. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?​

    • FE80::/10
    • FDEE::/7​
    • FF00::/8​
    • FEC0::/10​
      Explanation:

      Link-local addresses are in the range of FE80::/10 to FEBF::/10. The original IPv6 specification defined site-local addresses and used the prefix range FEC0::/10, but these addresses were deprecated by the IETF in favor of unique local addresses. FDEE::/7 is a unique local address because it is in the range of FC00::/7 to FDFF::/7. IPv6 multicast addresses have the prefix FF00::/8.

  6. What mechanism is used by a router to prevent a received IPv4 packet from traveling endlessly on a network?

    • It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 100, it discards the packet and sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.
    • It increments the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 100, it discards the packet and sends a Parameter Problem message to the source host.
    • It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.
    • It decrements the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Time Exceeded message to the source host.
  7. A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)

    • mobility options
    • security
    • interference
    • coverage area
    • packet collision
    • extensive cabling
      Explanation:

      The three areas of concern for wireless networks focus on the size of the coverage area, any nearby interference, and providing network security. Extensive cabling is not a concern for wireless networks, as a wireless network will require minimal cabling for providing wireless access to hosts. Mobility options are not a component of the areas of concern for wireless networks.

  8. Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?

    CCNA1 v7 - ITNv7 - Final Exam Answers 07

    CCNA1 v7 – ITNv7 – Final Exam Answers 07

    • The untwisted length of each wire is too long.
    • The woven copper braid should not have been removed.
    • The wrong type of connector is being used.
    • The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      When a cable to an RJ-45 connector is terminated, it is important to ensure that the untwisted wires are not too long and that the flexible plastic sheath surrounding the wires is crimped down and not the bare wires. None of the colored wires should be visible from the bottom of the jack.

  9. A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)

    • EMI
    • signal attenuation
    • crosstalk
    • RFI
    • extended length of cabling
      Explanation:

      EMI and RFI signals can distort and corrupt data signals that are carried by copper media. These distortions usually come from radio waves and electromagnetic devices such as motors and florescent lights. Crosstalk is a disturbance that is caused by adjacent wires bundled too close together with the magnetic field of one wire affecting another. Signal attenuation is caused when an electrical signal begins to deteriorate over the length of a copper cable.

  10. Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination server. Which three statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose three.)

    • TCP is the preferred protocol when a function requires lower network overhead.
    • The source port field identifies the running application or service that will handle data returning to the PC.
    • The TCP source port number identifies the sending host on the network.
    • UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for transport across the network.
    • The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server which will handle the data.
    • The TCP process running on the PC randomly selects the destination port when establishing a session with the server.
      Explanation:

      Layer 4 port numbers identify the application or service which will handle the data. The source port number is added by the sending device and will be the destination port number when the requested information is returned. Layer 4 segments are encapsulated within IP packets. UDP, not TCP, is used when low overhead is needed. A source IP address, not a TCP source port number, identifies the sending host on the network. Destination port numbers are specific ports that a server application or service monitors for requests.

  11. Match the application protocols to the correct transport protocols.

    CCNA1 v7 - ITNv7 - Final Exam Answers 01

    CCNA1 v7 – ITNv7 – Final Exam Answers 01

  12. A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necessary information? (Choose three.)

    • netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor
    • arp -a
    • tracert
    • ping
    • ipconfig
    • nslookup
    • telnet
      Explanation:

      The ipconfig and nslookup commands will provide initial IP address and DNS configuration information to the technicians and determine if DHCP is assigning correct information to the PCs. The ping utility would be used to verify, or not, connectivity to the default gateway (router) using the configured default gateway address, or using the known correct default gateway address if these are found to be different. The arp -a or netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor commands could be used if the problem is then suspected to be an IP address to MAC address mapping issue. The telnet and tracert utilities could be used to determine where the problem was located in the network if the default gateway configuration was found to be correct.

  13. What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)

    • speed and duplex settings
    • MAC addresses
    • next-hop addresses
    • interface descriptions
    • IP addresses
    • Layer 1 statuses
      Explanation:

      The command show ip interface brief shows the IP address of each interface, as well as the operational status of the interfaces at both Layer 1 and Layer 2. In order to see interface descriptions and speed and duplex settings, use the command show running-config interface. Next-hop addresses are displayed in the routing table with the command show ip route, and the MAC address of an interface can be seen with the command show interfaces.
  14. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 25 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

    • 255.255.255.224
    • 255.255.255.192
    • 255.255.255.240
    • 255.255.255.128
  15. Which frame field is created by a source node and used by a destination node to ensure that a transmitted data signal has not been altered by interference, distortion, or signal loss?

    • transport layer error check field
    • error correction process field
    • flow control field
    • User Datagram Protocol field
    • frame check sequence field
  16. What is a function of the data link layer?

    • provides delivery of data between two applications
    • provides for the exchange of frames over a common local media
    • provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
    • provides the formatting of data
  17. What are three characteristics of the CSMA/CD process? (Choose three.)

    • After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.
    • A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
    • All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
    • The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
    • Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
    • A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
  18. What characteristic describes a Trojan horse?

    • an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
    • malicious software or code running on an end device
    • a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
    • the use of stolen credentials to access private data
  19. What three requirements are defined by the protocols used in network communcations to allow message transmission across a network? (Choose three.)

    • end-device installation
    • media selection
    • message encoding
    • delivery options
    • connector specifications
    • message size
  20. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

    • If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.
    • When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
    • If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.
    • An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.
    • If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.
      Explanation:

      When a node encapsulates a data packet into a frame, it needs the destination MAC address. First it determines if the destination device is on the local network or on a remote network. Then it checks the ARP table (not the MAC table) to see if a pair of IP address and MAC address exists for either the destination IP address (if the destination host is on the local network) or the default gateway IP address (if the destination host is on a remote network). If the match does not exist, it generates an ARP broadcast to seek the IP address to MAC address resolution. Because the destination MAC address is unknown, the ARP request is broadcast with the MAC address FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. Either the destination device or the default gateway will respond with its MAC address, which enables the sending node to assemble the frame. If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will discard the packet because a frame cannot be created.
  21. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

    CCNA1 v7 - ITNv7 - Final Exam Answers 06

    CCNA1 v7 – ITNv7 – Final Exam Answers 06

    • The entire command, configure terminal , must be used.
    • The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.
    • The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
    • The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      In order to enter global configuration mode, the command configure terminal , or a shortened version such as config t , must be entered from privileged EXEC mode. In this scenario the administrator is in user EXEC mode, as indicated by the > symbol after the hostname. The administrator would need to use the enable command to move into privileged EXEC mode before entering the configure terminal command.

  22. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)

    CCNA1 v7 - ITNv7 - Final Exam Answers 05

    CCNA1 v7 – ITNv7 – Final Exam Answers 05

    • This host does not have a default gateway configured.
    • There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.
    • The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 milliseconds.
    • There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.
    • The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.
      Explanation:

      The output displays a successful Layer 3 connection between a host computer and a host at 19.168.100.1. It can be determined that 4 hops exist between them and the average transmission time is 1 milliseconds. Layer 3 connectivity does not necessarily mean that an application can run between the hosts.

  23. What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.)

    • retransmits packets if errors occur
    • guarantees delivery of packets
    • does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection
    • operates independently of the network media
    • re-assembles out of order packets into the correct order at the receiver end
      Explanation:

      The Internet Protocol (IP) is a connectionless, best effort protocol. This means that IP requires no end-to-end connection nor does it guarantee delivery of packets. IP is also media independent, which means it operates independently of the network media carrying the packets.

  24. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

    • The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
    • The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
    • A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.
    • The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
    • The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      When a host needs to send a message to another host located on the same network, it can forward the message directly. However, when a host needs to send a message to a remote network, it must use the router, also known as the default gateway. This is because the data link frame address of the remote destination host cannot be used directly. Instead, the IP packet has to be sent to the router (default gateway) and the router will forward the packet toward its destination. Therefore, if the default gateway is incorrectly configured, the host can communicate with other hosts on the same network, but not with hosts on remote networks.

  25. Users report that the network access is slow. After questioning the employees, the network administrator learned that one employee downloaded a third-party scanning program for the printer. What type of malware might be introduced that causes slow performance of the network?

    • spam
    • virus
    • worm
    • phishing
      Explanation:

      A cybersecurity specialist needs to be familiar with the characteristics of the different types of malware and attacks that threaten an organization.
  26. A company has a file server that shares a folder named Public. The network security policy specifies that the Public folder is assigned Read-Only rights to anyone who can log into the server while the Edit rights are assigned only to the network admin group. Which component is addressed in the AAA network service framework?

    • automation
    • authorization
    • accounting
    • authentication
      Explanation:

      After a user is successfully authenticated (logged into the server), the authorization is the process of determining what network resources the user can access and what operations (such as read or edit) the user can perform.

  27. What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)

    • loss of light over long distances
    • low-quality cable or connectors
    • low-quality shielding in cable
    • installing cables in conduit
    • improper termination
  28. Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?

    • A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.
    • A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network.
    • A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.
    • A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the transport layer header.
      Explanation:

      The source and destination port numbers are used to identify the correct application and window within that application.

  29. What is the consequence of configuring a router with the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command?

    • ​Each router interface will generate an IPv6 link-local address.​
    • The IPv6 enabled router interfaces begin sending ICMPv6 Router Advertisement messages.
    • It statically creates a global unicast address on this router.​
    • All router interfaces will be automatically activated.
  30. Which two protocols operate at the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose two.)

    • POP
    • DNS
    • IP
    • TCP
    • Ethernet
    • UDP
  31. An employee of a large corporation remotely logs into the company using the appropriate username and password. The employee is attending an important video conference with a customer concerning a large sale. It is important for the video quality to be excellent during the meeting. The employee is unaware that after a successful login, the connection to the company ISP failed. The secondary connection, however, activated within seconds. The disruption was not noticed by the employee or other employees.
    What three network characteristics are described in this scenario? (Choose three.)

    • integrity
    • scalability
    • quality of service
    • fault tolerance
    • powerline networking
    • security
  32. Refer to the exhibit. If PC1 is sending a packet to PC2 and routing has been configured between the two routers, what will R1 do with the Ethernet frame header attached by PC1?

    CCNA1 v7 - ITNv7 - Final Exam Answers 04

    CCNA1 v7 – ITNv7 – Final Exam Answers 04

    • open the header and use it to determine whether the data is to be sent out S0/0/0
    • open the header and replace the destination MAC address with a new one
    • nothing, because the router has a route to the destination network
    • remove the Ethernet header and configure a new Layer 2 header before sending it out S0/0/0
      Explanation:

      When PC1 forms the various headers attached to the data one of those headers is the Layer 2 header. Because PC1 connects to an Ethernet network, an Ethernet header is used. The source MAC address will be the MAC address of PC1 and the destination MAC address will be that of G0/0 on R1. When R1 gets that information, the router removes the Layer 2 header and creates a new one for the type of network the data will be placed onto (the serial link).
  33. Which three layers of the OSI model map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

    • transport
    • application
    • network
    • session
    • data link
    • presentation
      Explanation:

      The TCP/IP model and OSI model perform similar functions. However, the TCP/IP model uses four layers and the OSI model uses seven layers. The layers in each model can be mapped to each other as follows:

      OSI application -> TCP/IP application
      OSI presentation -> TCP/IP application
      OSI session -> TCP/IP application
      OSI transport -> TCP/IP transport
      OSI network -> TCP/IP internet
      OSI data link -> TCP/IP network access
      OSI physical -> TCP/IP network access

  34. Match each description with an appropriate IP address. (Not all options are used.)

    CCNA1 v7 - ITNv7 - Final Exam Answers 02

    CCNA1 v7 – ITNv7 – Final Exam Answers 02

    Explanation:

    Link-Local addresses are assigned automatically by the OS environment and are located in the block 169.254.0.0/16. The private addresses ranges are 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16. TEST-NET addresses belong to the range 192.0.2.0/24. The addresses in the block 240.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.254 are reserved as experimental addresses. Loopback addresses belong to the block 127.0.0.0/8.

  35. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?

    • strengthening of a signal by a networking device
    • leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
    • loss of signal strength as distance increases
    • time for a signal to reach its destination
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Data is transmitted on copper cables as electrical pulses. A detector in the network interface of a destination device must receive a signal that can be successfully decoded to match the signal sent. However, the farther the signal travels, the more it deteriorates. This is referred to as signal attenuation.

  36. Which two statements describe how to assess traffic flow patterns and network traffic types using a protocol analyzer? (Choose two.)

    • Capture traffic during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types.
    • Perform the capture on different network segments.
    • Only capture WAN traffic because traffic to the web is responsible for the largest amount of traffic on a network.
    • Only capture traffic in the areas of the network that receive most of the traffic such as the data center.
    • Capture traffic on the weekends when most employees are off work.
      Explanation:

      Traffic flow patterns should be gathered during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types. The capture should also be performed on different network segments because some traffic will be local to a particular segment.
  37. Refer to the exhibit. Host B on subnet Teachers transmits a packet to host D on subnet Students. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses are contained in the PDUs that are transmitted from host B to the router?

    CCNA1 v7 - ITNv7 - Final Exam Answers 03

    CCNA1 v7 – ITNv7 – Final Exam Answers 03

    • Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-dd
      Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
      Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
      Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200
    • Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab
      Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
      Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
      Layer 3 source address = 172.16.100.200
    • Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab
      Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
      Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
      Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200
    • Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-cd
      Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
      Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.99
      Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200
  38. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

    • 192.168.1.32/27
    • 192.168.1.32/28
    • 192.168.1.64/29
    • 192.168.1.64/26
      Explanation:

      For the subnet of 192.168.1.64/26, there are 6 bits for host addresses, yielding 64 possible addresses. However, the first and last subnets are the network and broadcast addresses for this subnet. Therefore, the range of host addresses for this subnet is 192.168.1.65 to 192.168.1.126. The other subnets do not contain the address 192.168.1.96 as a valid host address.

  39. What are two problems that can be caused by a large number of ARP request and reply messages? (Choose two.)

    • A large number of ARP request and reply messages may slow down the switching process, leading the switch to make many changes in its MAC table.
    • The ARP request is sent as a broadcast, and will flood the entire subnet.
    • Switches become overloaded because they concentrate all the traffic from the attached subnets.
    • All ARP request messages must be processed by all nodes on the local network.
    • The network may become overloaded because ARP reply messages have a very large payload due to the 48-bit MAC address and 32-bit IP address that they contain.
  40. Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

    • adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
    • integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper
    • handles communication between upper layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware
    • implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media
    • enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
  41. Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?

    • to enable the switch to be managed remotely
    • to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs
    • to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs
    • to enable the switch to function as a default gateway
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      A switch, as a Layer 2 device, does not need an IP address to transmit frames to attached devices. However, when a switch is accessed remotely through the network, it must have a Layer 3 address. The IP address must be applied to a virtual interface rather than to a physical interface. Routers, not switches, function as default gateways.

  42. How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches?

    • It requires encrypted passwords to be used when connecting remotely to a router or switch with Telnet.
    • It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files.
    • It requires that a user type encrypted passwords to gain console access to a router or switch.
    • It encrypts passwords as they are sent across the network.
      Explanation:

      The service password-encryption command encrypts plaintext passwords in the configuration file so that they cannot be viewed by unauthorized users.
  43. Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers? (Choose two.)

    • The Destination Address field is new in IPv6.
    • The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.
    • The Version field from IPv4 is not kept in IPv6.
    • The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6.
    • The Header Checksum field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.
  44. Which two statements accurately describe an advantage or a disadvantage when deploying NAT for IPv4 in a network? (Choose two.)

    • NAT will impact negatively on switch performance.
    • NAT causes routing tables to include more information.
    • NAT improves packet handling.
    • NAT adds authentication capability to IPv4.
    • NAT provides a solution to slow down the IPv4 address depletion.
    • NAT introduces problems for some applications that require end-to-end connectivity.
  45. Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically identified. (Not all options are used.)

    CCNA1 v7 Final Exam Answers 003

    CCNA1 v7 Final Exam Answers 003

    Explanation:

    A logical topology diagram typically depicts the IP addressing scheme and groupings of devices and ports. A physical topology diagram shows how those devices are connected to each other and the network, focusing on the physical locations of intermediary devices, configured ports, and cabling.

  46. What service is provided by HTTP?

    • An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
    • Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.
    • Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.
    • A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.
  47. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 67. What service is the client requesting?

    • Telnet
    • FTP
    • SSH
    • DHCP
  48. What are the two most effective ways to defend against malware? (Choose two.)

    • Implement strong passwords.
    • Update the operating system and other application software.
    • Install and update antivirus software.
    • Implement RAID.
    • Implement a VPN.
    • Implement network firewalls.
      Explanation:

      A cybersecurity specialist must be aware of the technologies and measures that are used as countermeasures to protect the organization from threats and vulnerabilities.
  49. An administrator defined a local user account with a secret password on router R1 for use with SSH. Which three additional steps are required to configure R1 to accept only encrypted SSH connections? (Choose three.)

    • Configure the IP domain name on the router.
    • Enable inbound vty Telnet sessions.
    • Configure DNS on the router.
    • Generate the SSH keys.
    • Generate two-way pre-shared keys.
    • Enable inbound vty SSH sessions.
      Explanation:

      There are four steps to configure SSH support on a Cisco router:
      Step 1: Set the domain name.
      Step 2: Generate one-way secret keys.
      Step 3: Create a local username and password.
      Step 4: Enable SSH inbound on a vty line.

  50. A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but there are currently no mappings in its ARP cache. How will the device obtain a destination MAC address?

    • It will send the frame and use its own MAC address as the destination.
    • It will send the frame with a broadcast MAC address.
    • It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the destination device.
    • It will send a request to the DNS server for the destination MAC address.
    • It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the default gateway.
  51. Match the header field with the appropriate layer of the OSI model. (Not all options are used.)

    CCNA1 v7 - ITNv7 - Final Exam Answers 03

    CCNA1 v7 – ITNv7 – Final Exam Answers 03

  52. When a switch configuration includes a user-defined error threshold on a per-port basis, to which switching method will the switch revert when the error threshold is reached?

    • fast-forward
    • cut-through
    • store-and-forward
    • fragment-free
  53. What are proprietary protocols?

    • protocols that can be freely used by any organization or vendor
    • protocols developed by private organizations to operate on any vendor hardware
    • a collection of protocols known as the TCP/IP protocol suite
    • protocols developed by organizations who have control over their definition and operation
      Explanation:

      Proprietary protocols have their definition and operation controlled by one company or vendor. Some of them can be used by different organizations with permission from the owner. The TCP/IP protocol suite is an open standard, not a proprietary protocol.

  54. What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined by an open standard?

    • An open standard protocol is not controlled or regulated by standards organizations.
    • A company can monopolize the market.
    • It encourages competition and promotes choices.
    • The protocol can only be run on equipment from a specific vendor.
      Explanation:

      A monopoly by one company is not a good idea from a user point of view. If a protocol can only be run on one brand, it makes it difficult to have mixed equipment in a network. A proprietary protocol is not free to use. An open standard protocol will in general be implemented by a wide range of vendors.

  55. Which type of server relies on record types such as A, NS, AAAA, and MX in order to provide services?

    • email
    • file
    • web
    • DNS
      Explanation:

      A DNS server stores records that are used to resolve IP addresses to host names. Some DNS record types include the following:

      • A – an end device IPv4 address
      • NS – an authoritative name server
      • AAAA – an end device IPv6 address
      • MX – a mail exchange record
  56. Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all options are used.)

    ITN Chapter 10 Exam Answers 02

    ITN Chapter 10 Exam Answers 02

    Explanation:

    Peer-to-peer networks do not require the use of a dedicated server, and devices can assume both client and server roles simultaneously on a per request basis. Because they do not require formalized accounts or permissions, they are best used in limited situations. Peer-to-peer applications require a user interface and background service to be running, and can be used in more diverse situations.

  57. A network administrator wants to have the same network mask for all networks at a particular small site. The site has the following networks and number of devices:

    IP phones – 22 addresses
    PCs – 20 addresses needed
    Printers – 2 addresses needed
    Scanners – 2 addresses needed

    The network administrator has deemed that 192.168.10.0/24 is to be the network used at this site. Which single subnet mask would make the most efficient use of the available addresses to use for the four subnetworks?

    • 255.255.255.240
    • 255.255.255.0
    • 255.255.255.192
    • 255.255.255.224
    • 255.255.255.248
    • 255.255.255.252
      Explanation:

      If the same mask is to be used, then the network with the most hosts must be examined for the number of hosts, which in this case is 22 hosts. Thus, 5 host bits are needed. The /27 or 255.255.255.224 subnet mask would be appropriate to use for these networks.
  58. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the LAN of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 prefix. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the properties of the workgroup server to allow connectivity to the Internet?

    CCNA1 v7 - ITNv7 - Final Exam Answers 02

    CCNA1 v7 – ITNv7 – Final Exam Answers 02

    • IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.33
    • IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.33
    • IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0, default gateway: 192.168.10.1
    • IP address: 192.168.10.41 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.46
    • IP address: 192.168.10.65 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.76
      Explanation:

      Using a /29 prefix to subnet 192.168.10.0 results in subnets that increment by 8:
      192.168.10.0 (1)
      192.168.10.8 (2)
      192.168.10.16 (3)
      192.168.10.24 (4)
      192.168.10.32 (5)
  59. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has been given the network address of 192.168.99.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 to subnet across the four networks shown. How many total host addresses are unused across all four subnets?

    CCNA1 v7 - ITNv7 - Final Exam Answers 01

    CCNA1 v7 – ITNv7 – Final Exam Answers 01

    • 158
    • 200
    • 224
    • 88
    • 72
      Explanation:

      The network IP address 192.168.99.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 provides 62 usable IP addresses for each subnet. Subnet A needs 30 host addresses. There are 32 addresses wasted. Subnet B uses 2 of the 62 available IP addresses, because it is a serial link. Consequently, it wastes 60 addresses. Likewise, subnet C wastes 60 addresses. Subnet D needs 14 addresses, so it wastes 48 addresses. The total wasted addresses are 32+60+60+48=200 addresses.
  60. What would be the interface ID of an IPv6 enabled interface with a MAC address of 1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8 when the interface ID is generated by using the EUI-64 process?

    • 1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
    • C16F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
    • 0C6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
    • 106F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
  61. Which information does the show startup-config command display?​

    • the IOS image copied into RAM
    • the bootstrap program in the ROM
    • the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM
    • the contents of the current running configuration file in the RAM
  62. Match each type of frame field to its function. (Not all options are used.)

    CCNA1 v7 Final Exam Answers 004

    CCNA1 v7 Final Exam Answers 004

  63. What are two primary responsibilities of the Ethernet MAC sublayer? (Choose two.)

    • accessing the media
    • data encapsulation
    • logical addressing
    • error detection
    • frame delimiting
  64. Match the characteristic to the forwarding method. (Not all options are used.)

    CCNA1 v7 Final Exam Answers 005

    CCNA1 v7 Final Exam Answers 005

  65. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

    • store-and-forward switching
    • ingress port buffering
    • cut-through switching
    • borderless switching
  66. What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP?

    • IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves email.
    • POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while IMAP allows distributed storage.
    • Messages are kept in the mail servers until they are manually deleted from the email client.
    • When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are kept in the mail server for a short time, but IMAP keeps them for a long time.
      Explanation:

      IMAP and POP are protocols that are used to retrieve email messages. The advantage of using IMAP instead of POP is that when the user connects to an IMAP-capable server, copies of the messages are downloaded to the client application. IMAP then stores the email messages on the server until the user manually deletes those messages.
  67. A wired laser printer is attached to a home computer. That printer has been shared so that other computers on the home network can also use the printer. What networking model is in use?

    • point-to-point
    • client-based
    • peer-to-peer (P2P)
    • master-slave
      Explanation:

      Peer-to-peer (P2P) networks have two or more network devices that can share resources such as printers or files without having a dedicated server.
  68. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 200 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

    • 255.255.255.224
    • 255.255.255.240
    • 255.255.255.192
    • 255.255.255.0
  69. Which wireless technology has low-power and data rate requirements making it popular in home automation applications?

    • ZigBee
    • 5G
    • Wi-Fi
    • LoRaWAN
  70. What are two characteristics shared by TCP and UDP? (Choose two.)

    • ability to to carry digitized voice
    • 3-way handshake
    • default window size
    • connectionless communication
    • port numbering
    • use of checksum
      Explanation:

      Both TCP and UDP use source and destination port numbers to distinguish different data streams and to forward the right data segments to the right applications. Error checking the header and data is done by both protocols by using a checksum calculation to determine the integrity of the data that is received. TCP is connection-oriented and uses a 3-way handshake to establish an initial connection. TCP also uses window to regulate the amount of traffic sent before receiving an acknowledgment. UDP is connectionless and is the best protocol for carry digitized VoIP signals.

  71. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 69. What service is the client requesting?

    • DHCP
    • SMTP
    • TFTP
    • DNS
  72. What service is provided by Internet Messenger?

    • An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
    • Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP addresses.
    • Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.
    • Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
  73. What characteristic describes antispyware?

    • a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization
    • a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
    • applications that protect end devices from becoming infected with malicious software
    • software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
  74. A network administrator wants to have the same subnet mask for three subnetworks at a small site. The site has the following networks and numbers of devices:

    Subnetwork A: IP phones – 10 addresses
    Subnetwork B: PCs – 8 addresses
    Subnetwork C: Printers – 2 addresses
    What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for the three subnetworks?

    • 255.255.255.240
    • 255.255.255.0
    • 255.255.255.248
    • 255.255.255.252
      Explanation:

      The largest subnet in the topology has 100 hosts in it so the subnet mask must have at least 7 host bits in it (27-2=126). 255.255.255.0 has 8 hosts bits, but this does not meet the requirement of providing the maximum number of subnets.

  75. Refer to the exhibit. A company uses the address block of 128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What subnet mask would provide the maximum number of equal size subnets while providing enough host addresses for each subnet in the exhibit?

    CCNA1 v7 – ITNv7 – Final Exam Answers 08

    • 255.255.255.128
    • 255.255.255.224
    • 255.255.255.192
    • 255.255.255.0
    • 255.255.255.240
  76. Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol was responsible for building the table that is shown?

    CCNA1 v7 - ITNv7 - Final Exam Answers 09

    CCNA1 v7 – ITNv7 – Final Exam Answers 09

    • ARP
    • DNS
    • DHCP
    • ICMP
  77. Which two traffic types use the Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP)? (Choose two.)

    • web
    • peer to peer
    • file transfer
    • video
    • voice
  78. Match the type of threat with the cause. (Not all options are used.)

    CCNA1 v7 Final Exam Answers 006

    CCNA1 v7 Final Exam Answers 006

  79. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are in their default configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC address for its default gateway. Which network hosts will receive the ARP request sent by host A?

    CCNA1 v7 - ITNv7 - Final Exam Answers 10

    CCNA1 v7 – ITNv7 – Final Exam Answers 10

    • only hosts A, B, C, and D
    • only router R1
    • only hosts A, B, and C
    • only hosts B and C
    • only hosts B, C, and router R1
    • only host D
      Explanation:

      Since host A does not have the MAC address of the default gateway in its ARP table, host A sends an ARP broadcast. The ARP broadcast would be sent to every device on the local network. Hosts B, C, and router R1 would receive the broadcast. Router R1 would not forward the message.

  80. Which value, that is contained in an IPv4 header field, is decremented by each router that receives a packet?

    • Differentiated Services
    • Fragment Offset
    • Header Length
    • Time-to-Live
  81. Refer to the exhibit. The IP address of which device interface should be used as the default gateway setting of host H1?

    CCNA1 v7 - ITNv7 - Final Exam Answers 11

    CCNA1 v7 – ITNv7 – Final Exam Answers 11

    • R2: S0/0/1
    • R1: G0/0
    • R2: S0/0/0
    • R1: S0/0/0
  82. Which two statements describe features of an IPv4 routing table on a router? (Choose two.)​

    • Directly connected interfaces will have two route source codes in the routing table: and .
    • The netstat -r command can be used to display the routing table of a router.​
    • If there are two or more possible routes to the same destination, the route associated with the higher metric value is included in the routing table.
    • The routing table lists the MAC addresses of each active interface.
    • If a default static route is configured in the router, an entry will be included in the routing table with source code .
    • It stores information about routes derived from the active router interfaces.
  83. Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

    • financial transactions, web page, audio conference
    • financial transactions, audio conference, web page
    • audio conference, financial transactions, web page
    • audio conference, web page, financial transactions
      Explanation:

      QoS mechanisms enable the establishment of queue management strategies that enforce priorities for different categories of application data. Thus, this queuing enables voice data to have priority over transaction data, which has priority over web data.

  84. What is the consequence of configuring a router with the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command?​

    • All router interfaces will be automatically activated.
    • Each router interface will generate an IPv6 link-local address.​
    • The IPv6 enabled router interfaces begin sending ICMPv6 Router Advertisement messages.
    • It statically creates a global unicast address on this router.​
  85. Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to the server, what layers of the TCP/IP model would be used?

    CCNA1 v7 - ITNv7 - Final Exam Answers 12

    CCNA1 v7 – ITNv7 – Final Exam Answers 12

    • only application, Internet, and network access layers
    • only application, transport, network, data link, and physical layers
    • application, session, transport, network, data link, and physical layers
    • only application and Internet layers
    • application, transport, Internet, and network access layers
    • only Internet and network access layers
      Explanation:

      The TCP/IP model contains the application, transport, internet, and network access layers. A file transfer uses the FTP application layer protocol. The data would move from the application layer through all of the layers of the model and across the network to the file server.

  86. The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?

    • The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network.
    • The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network.
    • The switch will have a management interface with the address 172.16.100.1.
    • The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to and from the gateway 172.16.100.1.
      Explanation:

      A default gateway address is typically configured on all devices to allow them to communicate beyond just their local network. In a switch this is achieved using the command ip default-gateway <ip address>.

  87. What characteristic describes adware?

    • a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
    • an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
    • the use of stolen credentials to access private data
    • software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user
  88. Match each description with the corresponding TCP mechanism. (Not all options are used.)

    CCNA1 v7 Final Exam Answers 007

    CCNA1 v7 Final Exam Answers 007

  89. What is the purpose of the TCP sliding window?

    • to ensure that segments arrive in order at the destination
    • to request that a source decrease the rate at which it transmits data
    • to inform a source to retransmit data from a specific point forward
    • to end communication when data transmission is complete
  90. What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect against signal interference from crosstalk?

    • terminating the cable with special grounded connectors
    • twisting the wires together into pairs
    • wrapping a foil shield around the wire pairs
    • encasing the cables within a flexible plastic sheath
      Explanation:

      To help prevent the effects of crosstalk, UTP cable wires are twisted together into pairs. Twisting the wires together causes the magnetic fields of each wire to cancel each other out.

  91. A network technician is researching the use of fiber optic cabling in a new technology center. Which two issues should be considered before implementing fiber optic media? (Choose two.)

    • Fiber optic cabling requires different termination and splicing expertise from what copper cabling requires.
    • Fiber optic cabling requires specific grounding to be immune to EMI.
    • Fiber optic cabling is susceptible to loss of signal due to RFI.
    • Fiber optic provides higher data capacity but is more expensive than copper cabling.
    • Fiber optic cable is able to withstand rough handling.
  92. Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?

    • syslog records and messages
    • debug output and packet captures
    • network configuration files
    • the network performance baseline
  93. A user is complaining that an external web page is taking longer than normal to load.The web page does eventually load on the user machine. Which tool should the technician use with administrator privileges in order to locate where the issue is in the network?

    • ipconfig /displaydns
    • nslookup
    • tracert
    • ping
  94. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 53. What service is the client requesting?

    • SSH
    • FTP
    • Telnet
    • DNS
  95. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC2. In this scenario, what will happen next?​

    CCNA1 v7 - ITNv7 - Final Exam Answers 13

    CCNA1 v7 – ITNv7 – Final Exam Answers 13

    • RT1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/0 MAC address.​
    • SW1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.​
    • RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.​
    • SW1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/1 MAC address.​
    • PC2 will send an ARP reply with its MAC address.
      Explanation:

      When a network device wants to communicate with another device on the same network, it sends a broadcast ARP request. In this case, the request will contain the IP address of PC2. The destination device (PC2) sends an ARP reply with its MAC address.

  96. Match the description to the IPv6 addressing component. (Not all options are used.)

    CCNA1 v7 Final Exam Answers 008

    CCNA1 v7 Final Exam Answers 008

  97. An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::2. What is the target of this packet?​

    • all IPv6 enabled devices on the local link​
    • all IPv6 DHCP servers​
    • all IPv6 enabled devices across the network​
    • all IPv6 configured routers on the local link​
  98. What are the three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

    • subnet ID
    • global routing prefix
    • interface ID
    • subnet mask
    • broadcast address
  99. What is one main characteristic of the data link layer?

    • It generates the electrical or optical signals that represent the 1 and 0 on the media.
    • It converts a stream of data bits into a predefined code.
    • It shields the upper layer protocol from being aware of the physical medium to be used in the communication.
    • It accepts Layer 3 packets and decides the path by which to forward the packet to a remote network.
  100. Which type of security threat would be responsible if a spreadsheet add-on disables the local software firewall?

    • Trojan horse
    • brute-force attack
    • DoS
    • buffer overflow
      Explanation:

      A Trojan horse is software that does something harmful, but is hidden in legitimate software code. A denial of service (DoS) attack results in interruption of network services to users, network devices, or applications. A brute-force attack commonly involves trying to access a network device. A buffer overflow occurs when a program attempts to store more data in a memory location than it can hold.

  101. What service is provided by HTTPS?

    • Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
    • Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP addresses.
    • Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.
    • Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.
  102. Match the characteristic to the category. (Not all options are used.)

    CCNA1 v7 Final Exam Answers 009

    CCNA1 v7 Final Exam Answers 009

  103. Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the destination address be in the frame when it leaves host A?

    CCNA1 v7 - ITNv7 - Final Exam Answers 14

    CCNA1 v7 – ITNv7 – Final Exam Answers 14

    • 172.168.10.65
    • 172.168.10.99
    • AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA
    • CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC
    • BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB
    • DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD
  104. Which two statements are correct about MAC and IP addresses during data transmission if NAT is not involved? (Choose two.)

    • Destination MAC addresses will never change in a frame that goes across seven routers.
    • A packet that has crossed four routers has changed the destination IP address four times.
    • Every time a frame is encapsulated with a new destination MAC address, a new destination IP address is needed.
    • Destination and source MAC addresses have local significance and change every time a frame goes from one LAN to another.
    • Destination IP addresses in a packet header remain constant along the entire path to a target host.
  105. Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the viewable output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)

    CCNA1 v7 - ITNv7 - Final Exam Answers 15

    CCNA1 v7 – ITNv7 – Final Exam Answers 15

    • Two devices are attached to the switch.
    • The default SVI has been configured.
    • The switch can be remotely managed.
    • Two physical interfaces have been configured.
    • Passwords have been configured on the switch.
    • One device is attached to a physical interface.
  106. A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a router, which is in the path to the destination device, stop forwarding the packet?

    • when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages reach zero
    • when the value in the TTL field reaches zero
    • when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message
    • when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message
    • when the RTT value reaches zero
      Explanation:

      When a router receives a traceroute packet, the value in the TTL field is decremented by 1. When the value in the field reaches zero, the receiving router will not forward the packet, and will send an ICMP Time Exceeded message back to the source.

  107. What are two functions that are provided by the network layer? (Choose two.)

    • carrying data between processes that are running on source and destination hosts
    • directing data packets to destination hosts on other networks
    • providing dedicated end-to-end connections
    • placing data on the network medium
    • providing end devices with a unique network identifier
  108. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 61 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

    • 255.255.255.224
    • 255.255.255.240
    • 255.255.255.192
    • 255.255.255.128